Compliance: Theory and Practice in the Financial Services Industry
13. Insurance, Superannuation and RSAs
| Inhouse Home | Compliance Course | Visit the Library |
IMPORTANT NOTE: These slides have been provided primarily for the use and benefit of students taking the "Compliance: Theory and Practice in the Financial Services Industry" course at Sydney University Law School. They are a summary only of the subject matter covered and are not intended to be, nor should they be relied upon as, a substitute for legal or other professional advice. In particular, it should be noted that the slides are not always verbatim quotes from the underlying source material and that material may have been abridged or paraphrased for presentational purposes. There also may have been legislative, regulatory or other developments since these slides were last updated that are not incorporated.
These slides are made available without the assumption of a duty of care by Inhouse Legal Solutions Pty Limited ("ILS") or the officers, employees or agents of ILS who were involved in their preparation and without any representation or warranty as to accuracy or completeness. Your use of these slides is subject to the terms and conditions set out on our Legal Notices page.
These slides were created with Microsoft FrontPage 2002 and are best viewed with Internet Explorer 6.0+.
| CA s764A(1) - Things that are Financial Products | |
| Subject to subdivision D (s765A), the following are financial products for the purposes of Chapter 7: ... | |
| (d) | a contract of insurance that is not a life policy, or a sinking fund policy, within the meaning of the Life Insurance Act 1995; |
| (e) | a life policy, or a sinking fund policy, within the meaning of the Life Insurance Act 1995, that is a contract of insurance; |
| (f) | a life policy, or a sinking fund policy, within the meaning of the Life Insurance Act 1995, that is not a contract of insurance; |
| (g) | a superannuation interest within the meaning of the Superannuation Industry (Supervision) Act 1993; |
| (h) | an RSA (retirement savings account) within the meaning of the Retirement Savings Accounts Act 1997. |
These products are defined in s761A to be "general insurance products", "life risk insurance products", "investment life insurance products", "superannuation products" and "RSA products" respectively.
Excluded from (d), (e) and (f) above are contracts of insurance that: (i) provide for a benefit to be provided by an association of employees that is an organisation within the meaning of the Workplace Relations Act 1996 for a member of the organisation or a dependant of a member; (ii) provide for benefits, pensions or payments described in s11(3)(c) of the Life Insurance Act 1995 (superannuation benefits, pensions or payments to employees or their dependants (and not to any other persons) on retirement, disability or death are provided by an employer or by employees, or by both, wholly through an organisation established by the employer or employees or by both); (iii) provide for the provision of a funeral benefit; or (iv) are issued by an employer to an employee of the employer. The exclusions in (i), (ii) and (iv) are further reinforced by specific provisions to similar effect in CA s765A(1)(u), (v) and (w).
Also excluded by CAs765A(1) are: (c) health insurance provided as part of a health insurance business (as defined in Division 121 of the Private Health Insurance Act 2007); (ca) insurance provided as part of a health-related business (as defined by s131-15 of that Act) that is conducted through a health benefits fund (as defined by s131-10 of that Act); (d) insurance provided by the Commonwealth; (e) State insurance or Northern Territory insurance, including insurance entered into by a State or the Northern Territory and some other insurer as joint insurers; (f) insurance entered into by the Export Finance and Insurance Corporation, other than a short-term insurance contract within the meaning of the Export Finance and Insurance Corporation Act 1991; and (g) reinsurance.
| IA ss 9 and 10 - Requirement to Register | |
| To carry on insurance business in Australia, a person must: | |
| • | be a body corporate that is authorised under s12 to carry on business as a general insurer; |
| • | be a Lloyd's underwriter; or |
| • | have an exemption under s7(1). |
| Maximum penalty: 60 penalty units. | |
Click here for a copy of the Insurance Act 1973.
In The Barclay MIS Group of Companies Pty Ltd v ASIC [2002] FCA 1606, the Federal Court held that certain risk management products aimed at protecting landlords against loss of rent and damage to property caused by tenants were insurance contracts and that the issuer of the products was therefore required to be registered as a general insurer under the Insurance Act 1973 and to have a financial services licence under the Corporations Act.
| IA s3(1) – Definition of Insurance Business | ||
| Insurance business means the business of undertaking liability, by way of insurance (including reinsurance), in respect of any loss or damage, including liability to pay damages or compensation, contingent upon the happening of a specified event, and includes any business incidental to insurance business as so defined, but does not include: | ||
| (a) | life insurance business; | |
| (b) | accident insurance business undertaken solely in connection with life insurance business; | |
| (c) | pecuniary loss insurance business carried on solely in the course of carrying on banking business and for the purposes of that business by an ADI; | |
| (d) | business in relation to the benefits provided by a friendly society or trade union for its members or their dependants; | |
| (e) | business in relation to the benefits provided for its members or their dependants by an association of employees or of employees and other persons that is registered as an organisation, or recognised, under the Fair Work (Registered Organisations) Act 2009; | |
| (f) | business in relation to a scheme or arrangement under which superannuation benefits, pensions or payments to employees or their dependants (and not to any other persons) on retirement, disability or death are provided by an employer or an employer's employees or by both, wholly through an organization established solely for that purpose by the employer or the employer's employees or by both; | |
| (g) | business in relation to a scheme or arrangement for the provision of benefits consisting of: | |
| (i) | the supply of funeral, burial or cremation services, with or without the supply of goods connected with any such service; or | |
| (ii) | the payment of money, upon the death of a person, for the purpose of meeting the whole or a part of the expenses of and incidental to the funeral, burial or cremation of that person; | |
| and no other benefits, except benefits incidental to the scheme or arrangement; | ||
| (h) | business undertaken by a person, being a carrier, carrier's agent, forwarding agent, wharfinger, warehouseman or shipping agent, relating only to the person's liability in respect of goods belonging to another person and in the possession, or under the control, of the first-mentioned person for the purpose of the carriage, storage or sale of those goods; | |
| (i) | business undertaken by a person, being an innkeeper or lodging-house keeper, relating only to the person's liability in respect of goods belonging to another person and in the possession or under the control of a guest at the inn or lodging-house of which the first-mentioned person is the innkeeper or lodging-house keeper or deposited with the innkeeper or lodging-house keeper for safe custody; | |
| (j) | the business of insuring the property of a religious organization where the person carrying on the business does not carry on any other insurance business; or | |
| (ja) | health-related business within the meaning of s131-15 of the Private Health Insurance Act 2007 carried on by a private health insurer within the meaning of that Act through a health benefits fund within the meaning of s131-10 of that Act; | |
| (k) | health insurance business within the meaning of Division 121 of the Private Health Insurance Act 2007 carried on by a private health insurer within the meaning of that Act. | |
| (l) | reinsurance business carried on by: | |
| (i) | a body corporate incorporated in a foreign country; or | |
| (ii) | an unincorporated body established, under a law of a foreign country, that under that law may sue or be sued, or may hold property in the name of its secretary or of an office holder of the body duly appointed for that purpose; | |
| that is not a general insurer. | ||
ICA s3A provides that the regulations may also specify things that are not "insurance business" for the purposes of the Act.
| IA ss32 and 35 - Obligation to Comply with the Prudential Standards |
| APRA may determine prudential standards for general insurers, authorised NOHCs and their subsidiaries, with which they are legally obliged to comply. |
Under IA s12(3), APRA may refuse to grant an authority to a body corporate under s12 to carry on insurance business in Australia if it is a subsidiary of another body corporate and that other body corporate is not an authorised NOHC.
IA s3(1) defines "NOHC" or "non‑operating holding company", in relation to a body corporate, to mean a body corporate: (a) of which the first body corporate is a subsidiary; (b) that does not carry on a business (other than a business consisting of the ownership or control of other bodies corporate); and (c) that is incorporated in Australia.
IA s18 establishes a regime for APRA to grant authorisation for a body corporate to be a NOHC for a general insurer.
| LIA s17(1) – Requirement to Register |
| A person other than a company registered under this Act must not intentionally: |
| (a) issue a life policy; or |
| (b) undertake liability under a life policy. |
Click here for a copy of the Life Insurance Act 1995.
| LIA s9 – Definition of Life Policy | |
| Each of the following constitutes a life policy for the purposes of this Act: | |
| (a) | a contract of insurance that provides for the payment of money on the death of a person or on the happening of a contingency dependent on the termination or continuance of human life; |
| (b) | a contract of insurance that is subject to payment of premiums for a term dependent on the termination or continuance of human life; |
| (c) | a contract of insurance that provides for the payment of an annuity for a term dependent on the continuance of human life; |
| (d) | a contract that provides for the payment of an annuity for a term not dependent on the continuance of human life but exceeding the prescribed term in the regulations (currently 10 years: LIR 2.01); |
| (e) | a continuous disability policy; |
| (f) | a contract (whether or not it is a contract of insurance) that constitutes an investment account contract; |
| (g) | a contract (whether or not it is a contract of insurance) that constitutes an investment-linked contract. |
LIA s9(2) excludes a contract that provides for the payment of money on the death of a person if the duration of the contract is to be not more than one year and payment is only to be made in the event of death by accident or death resulting from a specified sickness.
"Continuous disability policy" is defined in s9A. "Investment account benefits" and "investment-linked benefits" are defined in s14.
| LIA s234(1) - Mixed Insurance Business Prohibited |
| A life company must not intentionally carry on any insurance business other than life insurance business. |
| Penalty: 300 penalty units. |
LIA s234(2) provides a safe harbour for life companies that were carrying on general insurance business before the commencement of the Act.
| LIA s11 – Definition of Life Insurance Business |
| A reference in this Act to life insurance business is a reference to: |
| (a) business that consists of any or all of the following: |
| (i) the issuing of life policies; |
| (ii) the issuing of sinking fund policies; |
| (iii) the undertaking of liability under life policies; |
| (iv) the undertaking of liability under sinking fund policies; and |
| (b) any business that relates to business referred to in (a). |
The Dictionary in the Schedule to the LIA defines "sinking fund business" to mean business that consists of: (a) the issuing of sinking fund policies or the undertaking of liability under sinking fund policies; or (b) any related business. It defines "sinking fund policy" to mean a contract under which: (a) the company issuing the policy undertakes to pay money on one or more specified dates; and (b) neither the payment of that money nor the payment of premiums is dependent on the death or survival of the person to whom the policy is issued or of any other person.
LIA s12 divides life insurance business into two classes: (1) ordinary business; and (2) superannuation business. The Dictionary in the Schedule to the LIA defines "ordinary business" to mean life insurance business other than superannuation business and "superannuation business" to mean life business that consists of: (a) the issuing of superannuation policies or the undertaking of liability under superannuation policies; or (b) any related business. It further defines "superannuation policy" to mean: (a) a life policy that is maintained for the purposes of a superannuation or retirement scheme and is owned by the trustee under the scheme; or (b) a life policy of a kind prescribed by the regulations for these purposes.
Superannuation business is also governed by Superannuation Industry (Supervision) Act. Effectively, if a life company is going to offer superannuation products to its customers, it must set up a superannuation fund with a corporate trustee (usually a related body corporate). The trustee then invests in life policies offered by the life company on behalf of the customers. It may also offer other retail superannuation investment products that do not use life insurance policies as the underlying investments of the fund.
| LIA s31 - Requirement to Have Statutory Funds | ||
| A life company: | ||
| (a) | must at all times have at least one statutory fund in respect of its life insurance business but may have more statutory funds if it chooses to do so; | |
| (b) | that carries on life insurance business consisting of the provision of investment-linked benefits must maintain a statutory fund or statutory funds exclusively for that business so far as it is carried on in Australia; | |
| (c) | that carries on life insurance business outside Australia (other than an eligible foreign life insurance company) must have a statutory fund or statutory funds exclusively in respect of that business, except so far as paragraph (d) applies or APRA approves otherwise; and | |
| (d) | may only maintain a statutory fund in respect of both life insurance business carried on outside Australia and life insurance business carried on in Australia if: | |
| (i) | the statutory fund was established before the commencement of the LIA; | |
| (ii) | so far as it relates to business carried on outside Australia, the fund relates only to business carried on in a country or countries in which the company was carrying on life insurance business immediately before the commencement of the LIA; and | |
| (iii) | the company is not an eligible foreign life insurance company. | |
| LIA s30 - Outline of Requirements Regarding Statutory Funds | |
| The principal requirements in relation to statutory funds may be summarised as follows: | |
| (a) | all amounts received by a life company in respect of the business of a fund must be credited to the fund; |
| (b) | all assets and investments related to the business of a fund must be included in the fund; |
| (c) | all liabilities (including policy liabilities) of the company arising out of the conduct of the business of a fund must be treated as liabilities of the fund; |
| (d) | the assets of a fund are only available for expenditure related to the conduct of the business of the fund; |
| (e) | statutory funds may not be restructured or terminated without the approval of APRA; |
| (f) | profits and losses of a statutory fund may only be dealt with in accordance with Divisions 5 and 6 (the object of those Divisions being to ensure that such profits and losses are dealt with in a manner that protects the interests of policy owners and is consistent with prudent management of the fund). |
| LIA s48 - Duty of Directors in Relation to Statutory Funds | |
| A director of a life company has a duty to the owners of policies referable to a statutory fund of the company to take reasonable care, and use due diligence, to see that, in the investment, administration and management of the assets of the fund, the life company: | |
| (a) | complies with LIA Part 4; and |
| (b) | gives priority to the interests of owners and prospective owners of policies referable to the fund. |
| This duty overrides any duty the directors owe to the shareholders of the life company. | |
| If the directors breach this duty, they are jointly and severally liable to compensate the life company for any resulting loss to its statutory fund. | |
A person cannot be made liable both under this section and under s50 in respect of the same act or omission of a life company (s48(10)).
| LIA s50 - Liability of Directors for Failure to Comply with APRA Notice |
| If: |
| (a) APRA has given a notice to a life company under s49 [to remedy a contravention of Part 4]; |
| (b) the contravention has resulted in a loss to a statutory fund; and |
| (c) the company has failed to comply with the notice …; |
| the persons who were the directors of the company when the contravention occurred are jointly and severally liable to pay the company an amount equal to the amount of the loss unless they can prove that they used due diligence to ensure that the company complied with the notice. |
| LIA s188 - Liability of Directors in Winding Up |
| If: |
| (a) a life company contravenes this Act in relation to a statutory fund; |
| (b) the contravention results in a loss to the statutory fund; and |
| (c) … the Court orders that the company be wound up …; |
| the persons who were the directors of the company when the contravention occurred are jointly and severally liable to pay to the company an amount equal to the amount of the loss unless they can prove that they used due diligence to prevent the occurrence of such a contravention. |
A person cannot be made liable both under this section and under Division 2 of Part 4 in respect of the same contravention (s188(4)).
| LIA s198 - ASIC May Require Changes to Life Proposals and Policy Documents | ||
| (1) | ASIC may give a life company written notice requiring the company to submit to ASIC any form of proposal or policy document ordinarily used by the company in Australia. | |
| (2) | If ASIC thinks that a form submitted in answer to a notice under s198(1) does not comply with this Act or is likely to mislead, ASIC may give the life company written notice: | |
| (a) | setting out particulars of the way in which the form fails to comply with this Act or is likely to mislead; and | |
| (b) | inviting the life company to make submissions to ASIC on any matter set out in the notice. | |
| (3) | If: | |
| (a) | at least 14 days have elapsed since ASIC gave notice to the life company; and | |
| (b) | either: (i) the company has not made any submissions to ASIC; or (ii) having taken into account the submissions made by the life company, ASIC is satisfied that the form in question fails to comply with this Act or is likely to mislead; | |
| ASIC may give the life company a written direction to change the form in the way specified in the direction. | ||
| (4) | A life company must not make use of a form in respect of which ASIC has given a direction under s198(3), or allow such a form to be used by a representative of the company, unless the form has been changed in accordance with the direction. | |
Note that there are a number of provisions in LIA Part 10 (ss198-230) regulating life insurance contracts in general. These include provisions regulating the capacity of persons under 18 to obtain life insurance; assignments and mortgages; surrender and forfeiture; protection of policy proceeds from the claims of creditors; payment of policy proceeds; lost or destroyed policy documents; the effect of suicide and the like. We don't need to go into that level of detail for the purposes of this course.
| LIA s230A - Prudential Standards |
| APRA may determine prudential standards for life insurers. A failure to comply with a standard is not an offence, but it may lead to a direction being given by APRA under s230B. |
Failure to comply with a direction under s230B is a criminal offence (s230F). APRA may also prescribe prudential rules for the purposes of the Act that operate in the same manner as regulations under the Act (s252).
| LIR r4.00A(1) - Derivatives Risk Management Statements | ||
| A life company may give a charge over, or in relation to, an asset of a statutory fund if: | ||
| (a) | the charge is given in relation to a derivatives contract entered into: | |
| (i) | by, or on behalf of, the life company; | |
| (ii) | by a broker on the instructions, or on account, of the company; or | |
| (iii) | by a broker for the benefit of the company; | |
| (b) | the charge is given in order to comply with the rules of an approved body that requires the performance of obligations in relation to the derivatives contract to be secured; | |
| (c) | the life company has in place a risk management statement that sets out: | |
| (i) | policies for the use of derivatives that include an analysis of the risks associated with the use of derivatives within the investment strategy of the company; | |
| (ii) | controls on the use of derivatives that take into consideration the expertise of staff; and | |
| (iii) | compliance processes to ensure that the controls are effective (for example, reporting procedures, internal and external audits and staff management procedures); and | |
| (d) | the investment to which the charge relates is made in accordance with the risk management statement. | |
Click here for a copy of the Life Insurance Regulations.
LIR r4.00A operates as an exception to LIA s38(3), which prohibits a life company from mortgaging or charging any of the assets of a statutory fund except: (a) to secure a bank overdraft; (b) in connection with the undertaking of a major development project and in accordance with s40; or (c) for such other purposes, and subject to such other conditions, as are prescribed by the regulations. It is needed because many derivatives and futures exchanges require clients or their brokers to lodge margin which is charged in favour of the relevant exchange or clearing house to secure performance of the client's obligations under the derivative contract.
LIR r4.00A(2) and schedule 7 define "approved body" to include various stock and futures exchanges including the ASX, SFE and their associated clearing houses. It also defines "derivative" as meaning a financial asset or liability the value of which depends on, or is derived from, other assets, liabilities or indices and "derivatives contract" as meaning an option contract or futures contract relating to any right, liability or thing.
| ICA ss10 and 11 - Contracts of Insurance | ||
| • | Contract of life insurance means a contract that constitutes a life policy within the meaning of the Life Insurance Act 1995 (ICA s11(1)). | |
| • | Contract of general insurance is a contract of insurance that is not a contract of life insurance (ICA s11(6)). | |
| • | A reference to a contract of insurance includes a reference to a contract that: | |
| (a) | would ordinarily be regarded as a contract of insurance although some of its provisions are not by way of insurance; and | |
| (b) | includes provisions of insurance in so far as those provisions are concerned, although the contract would not ordinarily be regarded as a contract of insurance (ss10(1) and (2)). | |
Click here for a copy of the Insurance Contracts Act 1984.
The ICA applies to both general insurance and life insurance. It contains a number of modifications to the common law relating to insurance contracts (eg it removes the requirement for an insurable interest, removes the right of an insurer to be subrogated to rights of insured in certain circumstances where the action is against an employee of the insured or a family member of the insured) and regulates the contents of certain policies, procedures for their cancellation, payment of claims, rights of contribution etc. It is beyond the scope of this course to consider these provisions in detail.
ICA s11A provides that ASIC is responsible for the general administration of the ICA.
| ICA s11C(1) - ASIC may Obtain Insurance Documents | |
| ASIC may, for any purpose connected with the general administration of the relevant legislation, by notice in writing given to an insurer, require the insurer to give to ASIC, within 30 days of receipt of the notice, or such longer period as is specified in the notice, copies of: | |
| (a) | documents specified in the notice relating to insurance cover provided, or proposed to be provided, by the insurer; or |
| (b) | documents relating to insurance cover of a kind specified in the notice provided, or proposed to be provided, by the insurer. |
| ICA s11D(1) - ASIC may Review Administrative Arrangements | |
| ASIC may, for any purpose connected with the general administration of the relevant legislation, by notice in writing given to an insurer, require the insurer to give to ASIC, within 30 days of receipt of the notice or such longer period as is specified in the notice: | |
| (a) | written particulars of the organisational structure and administrative arrangements of the insurer either generally or in a particular area of insurance; |
| (b) | statistics relating to the nature and volume of the insurance business of the insurer either generally or in a particular area of insurance; or |
| (c) | copies of any training guides, work manuals or other materials of a similar nature used by an insurer in instructing its employees or any insurance intermediaries dealing with persons who have, or may be likely to seek, insurance cover from the insurer. |
| Duty of Utmost Good Faith | |
| • | A contract of insurance is a contract based on the utmost good faith and there is implied in such a contract a provision requiring each party to it to act towards the other party, in respect of any matter arising under or in relation to it, with the utmost good faith (s13). |
| • | If reliance by a party to a contract of insurance on a provision of the contract would be to fail to act with the utmost good faith, the party may not rely on the provision (s14(1)). |
| ICA s21 - Insured's Duty of Disclosure | ||
| (1) | Subject to this Act, an insured has a duty to disclose to the insurer, before the relevant contract of insurance is entered into, every matter that is known to the insured, being a matter that: | |
| (a) | the insured knows to be a matter relevant to the decision of the insurer whether to accept the risk and, if so, on what terms; or | |
| (b) | a reasonable person in the circumstances could be expected to know to be a matter so relevant. | |
| (2) | The duty of disclosure does not require the disclosure of a matter: | |
| (a) | that diminishes the risk; | |
| (b) | that is of common knowledge; | |
| (c) | that the insurer knows or in the ordinary course of the insurer's business as an insurer ought to know; or | |
| (d) | as to which compliance with the duty of disclosure is waived by the insurer. | |
| (3) | Where a person: | |
| (a) | failed to answer; or | |
| (b) | gave an obviously incomplete or irrelevant answer to; | |
| a question included in a proposal form about a matter, the insurer shall be deemed to have waived compliance with the duty of disclosure in relation to the matter. | ||
In Permanent Trustee Australia Limited v FAI General Insurance Company Limited (in Liq) [2003] HCA 25, the majority of the High Court found that an insured's disclosure obligations under ICA s21 relate only to those matters which the insured knows, or a reasonable person in the circumstance could be expected to know, are relevant to the insurer's assessment of risk. It does not extend to matters of a commercial nature, such as whether the insured intends to renew the insurance with that insurer in the future.
ICA s21A further qualifies the duty of disclosure for "eligible contracts of insurance". This is defined in Insurance Contracts Regulations r2B to include those insurance contracts declared for the purposes of Part V Division 1 of the ICA (ie those insurance contracts subject to prescribed minimum standards of cover, being motor vehicle property damage, home buildings, home contents, sickness and accident, consumer credit and travel insurance - see below) where the contract is for new business. It also includes any other type of insurance contract where the contract is for new business and the insurer, before the contract is entered into, gives to the insured: (i) a written notice in accordance with the form set out in Part 3 of Schedule 1; (ii) an oral notice in accordance with the words set out in Schedule 2; or (iii) a notice otherwise complying with ICA s22(1) of the Act clearly informing the insured of the general nature and effect of the duty of disclosure and the general nature and effect of ICA s21A.
Under ICA s21A, for eligible contracts of insurance, the insurer is taken to have waived compliance with the duty of disclosure in relation to the contract unless before the contract is entered into: (1) the insurer requests the insured to answer one or more specific questions that are relevant to the decision of the insurer whether to accept the risk and, if so, on what terms; or (2) both: (a) the insurer requests the insured to answer one or more specific questions that are relevant to the decision of the insurer whether to accept the risk and, if so, on what terms; and (b) the insurer expressly requests the insured to disclose each exceptional circumstance that: (i) is known to the insured; (ii) the insured knows, or a reasonable person in the circumstances could be expected to know, is a matter relevant to the decision of the insurer whether to accept the risk and, if so, on what terms; (iii) is not a matter that the insurer could reasonably be expected to make the subject of a question under para (a); and (iv) is not a matter covered by s21(2) (ICA ss21A(3) and (4)).
If the insurer does the first of these things and, in answer to each question, the insured discloses each matter that is known to the insured and a reasonable person in the circumstances could be expected to have disclosed in answer to that question, the insured is taken to have complied with the duty of disclosure in relation to the contract (ICA s21A(6)).
If the insurer does the second of these things and, in answer to each question referred to in para (a) above, the insured discloses each matter that is known to the insured and a reasonable person in the circumstances could be expected to have disclosed in answer to that question and the insured also complies with the request referred to in para (b) above, the insured is taken to have complied with the duty of disclosure in relation to the contract (ICA s21A(7)). The onus of proving that a matter is an exceptional circumstance covered by para (b)(iii) above lies on the insurer (ICA s21A(8)).
If the insurer does either of these things and also asks the insured to disclose any other matters that would be covered by the duty of disclosure in relation to the contract, the insurer is taken to have waived compliance with the duty of disclosure in relation to those matters (ICA s21A(5)).
| ICA s22 - Insurer to Inform of Duty of Disclosure | |
| (1) | The insurer shall, before a contract of insurance is entered into, clearly inform the insured in writing of the general nature and effect of the duty of disclosure and, if s21A applies to the contract, also clearly inform the insured in writing of the general nature and effect of s21A. |
| (2) | If the regulations prescribe a form of writing to be used for informing an insured of the matters referred to in s22(1), the writing to be used may be in accordance with the form so prescribed. |
| (3) | An insurer who has not complied with s22(1) may not exercise a right in respect of a failure to comply with the duty of disclosure unless that failure was fraudulent. |
ICR r3(1) prescribes a form to be used for the purposes of s22(2) but it is not mandatory. Under ICR r3(1), the form of writing that may be used to inform an insured of the matters mentioned in ICA s22(1) is: (a) for a contract of general insurance that is not an eligible contract of insurance (see above), the form set out in Part 1 of ICR Schedule 1; (b) for a contract of life insurance, the form set out in Part 2 of ICR Schedule 1; and (c) for an eligible contract of insurance, the form set out in Part 3 of ICR Schedule 1.
Under ICR r3(2), the words that may be used to inform an insured orally of the matters mentioned in s22(1) for an eligible contract of insurance are set out in ICR Schedule 2. ICA s69 provides for the circumstances in which information that is required by other provisions of the Act to be given in writing may be given orally.
| ICA s23 - Ambiguous Questions | |
| Where: | |
| (a) | a statement is made in answer to a question asked in relation to a proposed contract of insurance or the provision of insurance cover in respect of a person who is seeking to become a member of a superannuation or retirement scheme; and |
| (b) | a reasonable person in the circumstances would have understood the question to have the meaning that the person answering the question apparently understood it to have; |
| that meaning shall, in relation to the person who made the statement, be deemed to be the meaning of the question. | |
| ICA s24 - Warranties of Existing Facts to be Representations |
| A statement made in or in connection with a contract of insurance, being a statement made by or attributable to the insured, with respect to the existence of a state of affairs does not have effect as a warranty but has effect as though it were a statement made to the insurer by the insured during the negotiations for the contract but before it was entered into. |
This stops insurers bootstrapping representations into warranties in or conditions of a contract which, if breached, might otherwise entitle the insurer to terminate the contract.
| ICA s26 - Certain Statements Not Misrepresentations | |
| (1) | Where a statement that was made by a person in connection with a proposed contract of insurance was in fact untrue but was made on the basis of a belief that the person held, being a belief that a reasonable person in the circumstances would have held, the statement shall not be taken to be a misrepresentation. |
| (2) | A statement that was made by a person in connection with a proposed contract of insurance shall not be taken to be a misrepresentation unless the person who made the statement knew, or a reasonable person in the circumstances could be expected to have known, that the statement would have been relevant to the decision of the insurer whether to accept the risk and, if so, on what terms. |
Under ICA s26(3), this extends to the provision of insurance cover in respect of a person who is seeking to become a member of a superannuation or retirement scheme or who is a holder, or is applying to become a holder, of an RSA.
| ICA s27 - Failure to Answer Questions |
| A person shall not be taken to have made a misrepresentation by reason only that the person failed to answer a question included in a proposal form or gave an obviously incomplete or irrelevant answer to such a question. |
| ICA s28 – Right to Rescind General Insurance Contract |
| If the insured under a contract of general insurance: |
| (a) fails to comply with the duty of disclosure; or |
| (b) makes a misrepresentation to the insurer before the contract was entered into; |
| and the failure was fraudulent or the misrepresentation was made fraudulently, the insurer may avoid the contract. |
| This does not apply where the insurer would have entered into the contract, for the same premium and on the same terms and conditions, even if the insured had not failed to comply with the duty of disclosure or had not made the misrepresentation before the contract was entered into. |
ICA s28(3) provides that if the insurer is not entitled to avoid the contract or, being entitled to avoid the contract has not done so, the liability of the insurer in respect of a claim is reduced to the amount that would place the insurer in a position in which the insurer would have been if the failure had not occurred or the misrepresentation had not been made.
ICA s33 provides that these rights are exclusive and that the insurer has no other rights in respect of a failure by the insured to disclose a matter to the insurer before the contract was entered into and in respect of a misrepresentation or incorrect statement.
| ICA s29 – Right to Rescind Life Insurance Contract | |
| If the insured under a contract of life insurance: | |
| (a) | fails to comply with the duty of disclosure; or |
| (b) | makes a misrepresentation to the insurer before the contract was entered into; |
| the insurer may avoid the contract: | |
| (A) | if the failure was fraudulent or the misrepresentation was made fraudulently; or |
| (B) | within 3 years if the insurer would not have been prepared to enter into a contract of life insurance with the insured on any terms if the duty of disclosure had been complied with or the misrepresentation had not been made. |
| This does not apply where the insurer would have entered into the contract even if the insured had not failed to comply with the duty of disclosure or had not made the misrepresentation before the contract was entered into or where the failure or misrepresentation was in respect of the date of birth of one or more of the lives insured. | |
ICA s29(4) provides that if the insurer has not avoided the contract, it may, by notice in writing given to the insured before the expiration of 3 years after the contract was entered into, vary the contract by substituting for the sum insured (including any bonuses) a sum that is not less than the sum ascertained in accordance with the formula specified in that section.
ICA s30 provides a formula for reduction in the amount of cover where there has been a misstatement as to the age of a life insured.
Again, ICA s33 provides that these rights are exclusive and that the insurer has no other rights in respect of a failure by the insured to disclose a matter to the insurer before the contract was entered into and in respect of a misrepresentation or incorrect statement.
| ICA – Some Other Obligations | |
| • | For certain prescribed insurance contracts (motor vehicle property damage, home buildings, home contents, sickness and accident, consumer credit and travel insurance), an insurer is obliged to provide the prescribed minimum standard of cover unless it gives a clear notice in writing to the insured beforehand that its insurance contract provides less than the prescribed standard cover or it can otherwise show that the insured knew, or a reasonable person in the circumstances could be expected to have known, that the cover was less than the prescribed standard cover (s35). |
| • | In all other insurance contracts, the insurer must give prior notice to the insured of any "unusual terms" or else it cannot rely on them (s37). |
| • | Compulsory arbitration provisions are void, but once a dispute arises the parties can agree to arbitration (s43). |
| • | A provision in an insurance contract which entitles the insurer to vary it to the prejudice of any other person is void, subject to exemptions in the regulations (s53). |
| • | An insurer under a renewable contract of general insurance must notify the insured at least 14 days before expiry of the fact that the policy is about to expire. Failure to do so may result in the policy continuing beyond its due date for expiry (s58). |
| • | If an insured so requests in writing, the insurer must supply a complete copy of the insurance contract (s74). |
| • | Where an insurer does not accept an offer to enter into, cancels or proposes not to renew or (because of some special risk relating to the insured or to the subject-matter of the contract) to renew on less advantageous terms than the insurer would otherwise offer, a contract of insurance, the insurer must, if requested in writing by the insured, give the insured a statement in writing setting out its reasons for so doing (s75). |
Note this is not an exhaustive list of ICA obligations.
In relation to the first bullet point (ICA s35), the prescribed minimum standards of cover can be found in Part II (rr5-29) of the Insurance Contracts Regulations.
| SISA s10 – Superannuation Entities | |
| Superannuation entity means: | |
| (a) | a regulated superannuation fund ("RSF"); |
| (b) | an approved deposit fund ("ADF"); or |
| (c) | a pooled superannuation trust ("PST"). |
|
Click here for a copy of the Superannuation Industry (Supervision) Act 1993. |
|
|
Most SISA provisions apply generally to superannuation entities, as defined above. Particular provisions regulating RSFs are found in parts 7, 8 and 9, ADFs in part 10 and PSTs in part 11. |
|
|
Broadly speaking, RSFs fall into 4 main categories: |
|
|
> |
public offer funds - funds that are not standard employer-sponsored funds (s18); |
| > |
standard employer-sponsored funds - funds to which contributions are made by an employer for their employees (s16); |
|
> |
small APRA funds - funds with less than 5 members that are regulated by APRA rather than the ATO and that receive some concessional treatment because of their size; or |
|
> |
self managed superannuation funds - funds with less than 5 members that satisfy certain conditions set out in the definition of that term in s17A and that are regulated by the ATO rather than APRA. |
| Certain public sector funds listed in schedule 1AA of the SIS Regulations are exempted from the operation of SISA. | |
| SISA s19 – Regulated Superannuation Funds | ||
| A regulated superannuation fund is a superannuation fund: | ||
| (a) | which has at least one trustee; | |
| (b) | either of the following apply: | |
| (i) | the trustee of the fund is a constitutional corporation pursuant to a requirement contained in the governing rules; or | |
| (ii) | the governing rules provide that the sole or primary purpose of the fund is the provision of old-age pensions; and | |
| (c) | the trustee or trustees have given to APRA an irrevocable written notice that is: | |
| (i) | in the approved form; and | |
| (ii) | signed by the trustee or each trustee; | |
| electing that SISA is to apply in relation to the fund. | ||
Significant taxation concessions (in the form of a 15% tax rate) are available for exempt public sector superannuation funds and for resident regulated superannuation funds, self managed superannuation funds, ADFs and PSTs that have a certificate from APRA confirming their compliance with SISA (see SISA ss40-44). Private sector funds and non-exempt public sector super funds that want to receive the tax concessions therefore have to comply with s19 and either have a corporate trustee or limit themselves to providing old-age pensions. That then gives the federal government the capacity to regulate their activities, using its power to legislate with respect to corporations (s51(xx) of the Constitution) and old-age pensions (s51(xxiii) of the Constitution). In this way, the Federal government has been able to substantively regulate the provision of superannuation benefits even though it does not have direct legislative power to do so.
| SISA – Core Regulatory Obligations for all Superannuation Entities | |
| • | Trustees of superannuation entities (other than SMSFs) must hold an RSE licence (part 2A). |
| • |
To obtain an RSE licence, a trustee must have a risk management strategy (s29D(1)(e)). |
| • | Superannuation entities (other than SMSFs) must be registered with APRA (part 2B). |
| • |
To register a superannuation entity, the trustee must have a risk management plan for that entity (s29M(1)(d)). |
| • | Superannuation entities must comply with published operating standards (part 3). |
| • | Certain prescribed covenants are deemed to be included in the governing rules of a superannuation entity and other provisions are deemed to be void (part 6). |
| • | Trustees are subject to various additional statutory duties (part 12). |
| • | Borrowing money is prohibited except in very limited circumstances (ss67, 95, 97). |
| • | Trustees and investment managers must invest on arm's length terms (s109). |
| • | Trustees, custodians and investment managers of superannuation entities must meet certain eligibility criteria and may be disqualified from acting if they don't (part 15). |
Groups of individuals and bodies corporate that are not a "constitutional corporation" cannot apply for a licence that would allow them to act as the trustee of a public offer fund (s29C).
An RSE licensee must ensure that the number of its RSE licence or its ABN is included in each document it gives to APRA in its capacity as RSE licensee and any other document in which it identifies itself as an RSE licensee or as the trustee of a registrable superannuation entity (s 29DC, as modified by Modification Declaration No 4 dated 3 December 2007). It must also ensure that a registered superannuation entity's registration number or its ABN is included in each document it gives to APRA that relates to the entity and any other document in which it identifies itself as the licensee or trustee of the entity (s29MB, as modified by Modification Declaration No 4 dated 3 December 2007).
Under SISA s29H, a RSE licensee's risk management strategy must set out reasonable measures and procedures that the trustee is to apply to identify, monitor and manage risks that arise in relation to its activities, or proposed activities, as an RSE licensee and in relation to all its other activities, or proposed activities, to the extent that they are relevant to its activities, or proposed activities, as an RSE licensee. This includes: (i) the risks associated with governance and decision-making processes; (ii) the risks that arise as a result of entering into outsourcing arrangements (other than arrangements that relate only to a particular registrable superannuation entity); (iii) the risks arising from any changes to the RSE licensee law; and (iv) the risks of potential fraud and theft. It also includes the circumstances in which an audit of the risks referred to in s29H is to be undertaken and such other matters as are prescribed by the regulations.
Under SISA s29P, a superannuation entity's risk management plan must set out reasonable measures and procedures that the RSE licensee of the entity is to apply to identify, monitor and manage the risks that arise in operating the entity. This includes: (i) the risks to the investment strategy relevant to the entity; (ii) the risks to the entity's financial position; and (iii) the risks from entering into outsourcing arrangements relating to the entity. It also includes the circumstances in which an audit of the risks referred to in s29P is to be undertaken and such other matters as are prescribed by the regulations.
These risk management strategies and plans must be signed by the trustee and may incorporate other documents by reference, provided they are made available free of charge to members of the public (eg a fund's risk management plan may incorporate by reference provisions from the trustee's risk management strategy and vice versa). They must also be kept up to date and reviewed at least yearly (ss29HA and 29PA).
SISR r4.07A requires the risk management strategy for an RSE licensee to assess each "material risk" relevant to the licensee and SISR r4.07B requires the risk management plan for a superannuation entity to assess each "material risk" relevant to the entity. In each case, they must take into account the likelihood of the risk being realised and the consequences if it is, and specify the way in which the trustee proposes to treat that risk. This includes its risk response strategy and the measures and procedures it will apply to address the risk, as well as an assessment of any residual risk. It also must include a statement of the proposed arrangements for internal oversight, implementation and reporting in relation to the management of material risks by the trustee. For these purposes, "material risk": (a) in relation to an RSE licensee, means a risk that has the potential to adversely affect the interests of members or beneficiaries of the registrable superannuation entities for which the trustee is the RSE licensee or have a significant impact on the business operations, reputation, rate of return, profitability or net assets of the trustee; and (b) a superannuation entity, means a risk that has the potential to adversely affect the interests of members or beneficiaries of the entity or have a significant impact on the business operations, reputation, rate of return, profitability or net assets of the entity.
| SISA – Core Regulatory Obligations for RSFs | |
| For regulated superannuation funds: | |
| • | Trustee must ensure that fund is maintained solely for the core purpose of providing benefits upon death or retirement of members (s62). |
| • | Funds are generally prohibited from lending money to members or their relatives (s65). |
| • | Funds are prohibited from intentionally acquiring assets from members, employer-sponsors or their associates except in very limited circumstances (s66). |
| • | Funds are limited to holding no more than 5% of assets in "in-house assets" – loans to or investments in a member, employer-sponsor or their associates (part 8). |
| • | Employer-sponsored funds must have equal representation of employers and members (part 9). |
| SISA s52 – Deemed Covenants | ||
| If the governing rules of a superannuation entity do not contain the following covenants, they are taken to contain covenants to such effect by each trustee of the entity: | ||
| (a) | to act honestly in all matters concerning the entity; | |
| (b) | to exercise, in relation to all matters affecting the entity, the same degree of care, skill and diligence as an ordinary prudent person would exercise in dealing with property of another for whom the person felt morally bound to provide; | |
| (c) | to ensure that the trustee's duties and powers are performed and exercised in the best interests of the beneficiaries; | |
| (d) | to keep the money and other assets of the entity separate from any money and assets, respectively: | |
| (i) | that are held by the trustee personally; or | |
| (ii) | that are money or assets, as the case may be, of a standard employer-sponsor, or an associate of a standard employer-sponsor, of the entity; | |
| (e) | not to enter into any contract, or do anything else, that would prevent the trustee from, or hinder the trustee in, properly performing or exercising the trustee's functions and powers; | |
| (f) | to formulate and give effect to an investment strategy that has regard to the whole of the circumstances of the entity including, but not limited to, the following: | |
| (i) | the risk involved in making, holding and realising, and the likely return from, the entity's investments having regard to its objectives and its expected cash flow requirements; | |
| (ii) | the composition of the entity's investments as a whole including the extent to which the investments are diverse or involve the entity in being exposed to risks from inadequate diversification; | |
| (iii) | the liquidity of the entity's investments having regard to its expected cash flow requirements; | |
| (iv) | the ability of the entity to discharge its existing and prospective liabilities; | |
| (g) | if there are any reserves of the entity - to formulate and to give effect to a strategy for their prudential management, consistent with the entity's investment strategy and its capacity to discharge its liabilities (whether actual or contingent) as and when they fall due; | |
| (h) | to allow a beneficiary access to any prescribed information or any prescribed documents; and | |
| (i) | such other covenants as are prescribed in the regulations. | |
| These covenants also operate as covenants by each of the directors of a corporate trustee to exercise a reasonable degree of care and diligence that a reasonable person in the position of director would exercise in the trustee's circumstances, for the purposes of ensuring that the trustee carries out these covenants and so operate as if the directors were parties to the governing rules. | ||
Of course, the fact that superannuation entities are required by SISA to be structured as trusts with trustees imports all of the common law duties of trustees. We considered these duties in lecture 10 when we looked at the common law fiduciary duties of REs of managed investment schemes. Many of these statutory covenants replicate and codify those common law duties.
Under SISA s55(1), a person must not contravene a covenant contained, or taken to be contained, in the governing rules of a superannuation entity. A contravention of s55(1) is not an offence and does not result in the invalidity of a transaction (s55(2)). However, a person who suffers loss or damage as a result of conduct by another person in contravention of s55(1), may recover the amount of the loss or damage by action against that other person or against any person involved in the contravention (s55(3)). Such an action may be begun at any time within 6 years after the day on which the cause of action arose (s55(4)).
It is a defence to an action for loss or damage suffered by a person as a result of the making of an investment by or on behalf of the trustee of a superannuation entity if the defendant establishes that the investment was made in accordance with an investment strategy formulated under a covenant referred to in s52(2)(f) (s52(5)). It is a defence to an action for loss or damage suffered by a person as a result of the management of any reserves by the trustee of a superannuation entity if the defendant establishes that the management of the reserves was in accordance with a covenant referred to in s52(2)(g) (s52(6)). These defences apply in relation to any action for loss or damage, whether brought under s55(3) or otherwise (s52(7)).
It seems reasonably clear that ss55 (1) and (3) also operate in relation to the deemed covenants by the directors of a corporate trustee under s52(8). Accordingly, such directors can be personally liable to members if the trustee does not comply with its covenants and they did not exercise a reasonable degree of care and skill to prevent that occurring.
| SISA s34 - Prescribed Operating Standards Must be Complied With | |
| (1) | The trustee of a superannuation entity must ensure that the prescribed standards applicable to the operation of the entity are complied with at all times. |
| (2) | A person who intentionally or recklessly contravenes s34(1) is guilty of an offence punishable on conviction by a fine not exceeding 100 penalty units. |
| (3) | A contravention of s34(1) does not affect the validity of a transaction. |
| SISR r4.09 – Investment Strategy | |
| The trustee must formulate and give effect to an investment strategy that has regard to all the circumstances of the entity, including in particular: | |
| (a) | the risk involved in making, holding and realising, and the likely return from, the entity's investments, having regard to its objectives and expected cash flow requirements; |
| (b) | the composition of the entity's investments as a whole, including the extent to which they are diverse or involve exposure of the entity to risks from inadequate diversification; |
| (c) | the liquidity of the entity's investments, having regard to its expected cash flow requirements; |
| (d) | the ability of the entity to discharge its existing and prospective liabilities. |
Click here for a copy of the Superannuation Industry (Supervision) Regulations.
SISR r4.09 substantially repeats the covenant deemed to be contained in the governing rules of all superannuation entities under s52(2)(f). This is expressed to operate as a standard applicable to the operation of all superannuation entities. Making it an operating standard as well as a covenant means that a person who breaches it intentionally or recklessly commits a criminal offence as well as being potentially liable for civil damages.
The obligation to "give effect to" the investment strategy thus creates additional compliance obligations to ensure that fund investment activities accord with that strategy.
| SISA - Obligations in Relation to Investment Managers | |
| • | The trustee of a superannuation entity must not make a non-written appointment of an investment manager of the entity (s124). |
| • | The trustee of a superannuation entity must ensure that any agreement with an investment manager contains adequate provision to enable the trustee to require the investment manager to provide: (i) appropriate information as to the making of, and return on, the investments of the entity; and (ii) such information as is necessary to enable the trustee to assess the capability of the investment manager to manage the investments of the entity (s102). |
| • | Despite anything in the governing rules of a superannuation entity, any provision of an agreement between the trustee of the entity and an investment manager that purports to exempt the investment manager from liability for negligence, or to limit that liability, is void (s116). |
| • | An individual cannot act as an investment manager of a superannuation entity (other than a self managed superannuation fund) (s125). |
| • | An investment manager of a superannuation entity must not appoint or engage a custodian of the entity without the written consent of the trustee of the entity (s122K). |
| • | Investment managers must also comply with ss65 (prohibition on lending to members of RSF), 66 (prohibition on acquisition of assets from related parties of RSF), 98 (prohibition on lending to unitholders in PST) and 109 (investments to be on arm's length terms). |
"Investment manager" is defined in SISA s10 to mean a person appointed by the trustee of a fund or trust to invest on behalf of the trustee. These provisions need to be borne in mind if you are ever negotiating an investment management agreement between the trustee of a super fund and an investment manager.
Note IFSA has a standard investment management agreement, which can be accessed from the IFSA web site, which serves as a useful starting point for commercial negotiations between a superannuation trustee and fund manager. The agreement sets out the duties and powers of the manager, including compliance with the investment instructions provided by the trustee, and regular reporting on investment performance.
| SISA s101 - Complaints Arrangements | |
| The trustee of a regulated superannuation fund other than a self managed superannuation fund, or of an approved deposit fund, must take all reasonable steps to ensure that there are at all times in force arrangements under which: | |
| (a) | a person referred to in s101(1A) has the right to make an inquiry or a complaint of the kind specified in that section in relation to that person; and |
| (b) | an inquiry or complaint so made will be properly considered and dealt with within 90 days after it was made. |
The persons referred to in s101(1A) are: (a) a beneficiary or former beneficiary; (b) the executor or administrator of the estate of a former beneficiary; and (c) a person who has an interest in a death benefit or who claims to be, or to be entitled to death benefits through, such a person.
| SISA s155 - Fair Dealing on Issue or Redemption | |
| The trustee of a public offer entity which is considering issuing a superannuation interest in the entity to, or redeeming a superannuation interest in the entity held by, a person, where either: | |
| (i) | the trustee believes on reasonable grounds that the price at which, under the governing rules of the entity, the interest would be issued or redeemed would not, in the circumstances, be fair and reasonable as between the person and the beneficiaries of the entity; or |
| (ii) | the trustee cannot, for whatever reason, work out the price at which, under the governing rules of the entity, the interest should be issued or redeemed, |
| must not do so except at a price that is fair and reasonable as between the person and the beneficiaries of the entity. | |
SISA s155(3) provides that if the trustee issues or redeems the interest at such a price, the trustee is taken to have acted in accordance with the governing rules of the entity. A contravention of s155 is not an offence, but it may give rise to civil liability under s156.
| SISR r13.15A(1) - Derivatives Risk Statements | ||
| A trustee may give a charge over, or in relation to, an asset of a fund if: | ||
| (a) | the charge is given in relation to a derivatives contract entered into: | |
| (i) | by, or on behalf of, the trustee; or | |
| (ii) | by a broker on the instructions, or on account, of the trustee; or | |
| (iii) | by a broker for the benefit of the trustee; | |
| (b) | the charge is given in order to comply with the rules of an approved body that requires the performance of obligations in relation to the derivatives contract to be secured; | |
| (c) | the fund has in place a derivatives risk statement that sets out: | |
| (i) | policies for the use of derivatives that include an analysis of the risks associated with the use of derivatives within the investment strategy of the fund; | |
| (ii) | restrictions and controls on the use of derivatives that take into consideration the expertise of staff; and | |
| (iii) | compliance processes to ensure that the controls are effective (for example, reporting procedures, internal and external audits and staff management procedures); and | |
| (d) | the investment to which the charge relates is made in accordance with the derivatives risk statement. | |
Click here for a copy of the Superannuation Industry (Supervision) Regulations.
SISR r13.15A operates as an exception to SISR r13.14, which prescribes as a standard applicable to the operation of all RSFs and ADFs that the trustee of a fund must not give a charge over, or in relation to, an asset of the fund. Again, it is needed because many derivatives and futures exchanges require clients or their brokers to lodge margin which is charged in favour of the relevant exchange or clearing house to secure performance of the client's obligations under the derivative contract.
SISR r13.15A(2) and schedule 4 define "approved body" to include various stock and futures exchanges including the ASX, SFE and their associated clearing houses. SISR r13.15A(2) also defines "derivative" as meaning a financial asset or liability the value of which depends on, or is derived from, other assets, liabilities or indices and "derivatives contract" as meaning an option contract or futures contract relating to any right, liability or thing.
| Superannuation Circular II.D.7 - Derivatives | |
| "19. Derivatives should not be considered in isolation but as part of the investment strategy of the fund as a whole, having regard to the risk/return characteristics of all assets in the investment portfolio. … | |
| 22. Derivatives should not be used for 'speculation'. … | |
| 23. Whether funds are invested in derivatives directly, through collective investment schemes or through external investment managers, trustees should regularly review their investment strategy policies and risk management policies in relation to derivative investments in order to ensure that the covenants contained in SIS ss52(2)(c) and 52(2)(f) continue to be met at all times. | |
| 24. In particular, trustees of funds investing in derivatives … should: | |
| • | have satisfactory risk management practices for derivatives evidenced by a Risk Management Statement (RMS). The RMS should include exposure to physical assets as well as derivatives. In particular, the risk management practices should effectively exclude the improper use of derivatives [for speculation]; … |
| • | implement satisfactory internal and external audit procedures; and |
| • | require their external auditors to report on whether a RMS is in place and, if so, the extent of compliance with the RMS." |
Click here for a copy of Superannuation Circular II.D.7 – Derivatives.
Following amendments to SISR r13.15A in 2006, references to a Risk Management Statement or RMS in the above Circular are now read as references to a derivative risk statement.
Appendix 1 to Circular II.D.7 contains guidelines for trustees of superannuation funds to prepare an RMS. It is divided into 2 parts. Part A is a 'Fund Reference RMS' which sets the framework for derivative investment and links it to the fund's investment strategy. Part B is a detailed RMS which covers all detailed aspects of derivatives use and control by the party responsible for implementation of derivative investment decisions. Where a trustee has employed the services of an external investment manager, the trustee prepares Part A and the investment manager prepares Part B. Usually an investment manager will prepare a generic Part B for all portfolios it manages using the same risk management practices.
Note that the approved form of audit report under SISA s113 (see Superannuation Circular IV.A.4 – Responsibilities of the Approved Auditor, August 1999) requires the auditor to state that s/he has conducted tests in accordance with Australian Auditing Standards as necessary to provide reasonable assurance whether the trustee of the fund has in all material respects adhered to the guidelines for preparing risk management statements issued by APRA in Circular II.D.7 on Derivatives.
| CR r7.9.37(1) – Disclosure in Periodic Statements | ||
| The "fund information" to be disclosed in the periodic reports under s1017DA by regulated superannuation funds and approved deposit funds includes: … | ||
| (h) | a statement regarding the funds policy toward the use of derivative securities; | |
| (i) | if the derivatives charge ratio of the fund (as defined in the SIS Regulations) exceeded 5% at any time during the reporting period: | |
| (i) | the derivatives charge ratio as at the end of the reporting period; | |
| (ii) | the highest derivatives charge ratio attained during the reporting period; | |
| (iii) | an explanation of why the derivatives charge ratio exceeded 5%; and | |
| (iv) | an explanation of the meaning of derivatives charge ratio in, or to the effect of the following: | |
| "The derivatives charge ratio is the percentage of the total market value of the assets of the fund (other than cash) that the trustee has charged as security for derivatives investments made by the trustee.". | ||
| RSAA s8 - Definition of RSA | |
| An RSA, or retirement savings account, is an account or a policy: | |
| (a) | that is described as an RSA; |
| (b) | that is provided by an entity that is an RSA institution at the time the account is opened or the policy is issued; |
| (c) | that is capital guaranteed (see s14); |
| (d) | that is held by a person who is an eligible person at the time the account is opened or the policy is issued (ie they satisfy any prescribed criteria - see s13); |
| (e) | that, at the time that it is opened or issued, satisfies: |
| (i) the requirements in s15; and | |
| (ii) any prescribed criteria. | |
Click here for a copy of the Retirement Savings Account Act 1997.
RSAs are intended to be simple, low cost capital-guaranteed alternatives to superannuation. RSAs are subject to concessional rules under income tax and social security law.
An RSA can only be provided by a life insurance company as a policy (s8(2)).
| RSAA s11 - Who is an RSA Institution? | |
| (1) | A person is an RSA institution at a particular time if there is an approval under s26 in force in relation to the person at that time which has not been suspended or revoked under s33. |
| (2) | Only an ADI or a life insurance company or a prescribed financial institution can be approved as an RSA institution. |
No financial institutions have been prescribed for the purposes of s11(2).
| RSAA s15 - RSA Benefits | ||
| An RSA must be maintained to provide one or more of the benefits below: | ||
| (1) | benefits for the holder of the RSA on or after one of, or the earlier of, the following: | |
| (a) | the holder's retirement from any business, trade, profession, vocation, calling, occupation or employment in which the holder was engaged (whether the holder's retirement occurred before, or occurred after, the holder's account was opened); | |
| (b) | the holder's attainment of an age not less than the age specified in the regulations; | |
| (2) | benefits in respect of the holder of the RSA on or after the holder's death, if: | |
| (a) | the death occurred before (1)(a) or (b) above: and | |
| (b) | the benefits are provided to the holder's legal personal representative, to any or all of the holder's dependants, or to both. | |
|
The specified age is 65 years (Retirement Savings Account Regulations r6.11). |
|
|
As long as the RSA is maintained to provide one or more of the benefits above, it may also be maintained to provide one or more of the following: |
|
|
> |
benefits for the holder on or after the termination of the holder's employment with an employer who had, or any of whose associates had, at any time, contributed amounts in the account; |
|
> |
benefits for the holder on or after the holder's cessation of work, if the work was for gain or reward in any business, trade, profession, vocation, calling, occupation or employment in which the holder was engaged and the cessation is on account of ill-health (whether physical or mental); |
|
> |
benefits in respect of the holder on or after the holder's death, if the benefits are provided to the holder's legal personal representative, to any or all of the holder's dependants, or to both and the death occurred after (1)(a) or (b) above; |
|
> |
such other benefits as APRA approves in writing (RSAA s15(4)). |
| RSAA ss38 and 39 - Operating Standards for RSAs | |
| • | The regulations may prescribe standards applicable to the operation of RSAs and RSA providers must comply with applicable standards at all times. |
| • | A person who intentionally or recklessly fails to comply with applicable operating standards is guilty of an offence punishable on conviction by a fine not exceeding 100 penalty units. |
| RSAA ss40 and 41 – Certain Arrangements etc. Not Permitted | |
| • | An RSA provider must not enter into any interest off-set arrangements or combination account arrangements where one of the accounts involved is an RSA (s40(1)). |
| • | Any term or condition in a contract or other agreement providing for a charge, mortgage, lien or other encumbrance over, or in relation to, an RSA is of no effect (s41(1)). |
| • | Benefits provided under an RSA in relation to an RSA cannot be assigned (s41(2)). |
| • | An RSA provider must not recognise, or in any way encourage or sanction, a charge, mortgage, lien or other encumbrance over an RSA or an assignment of benefits provided under an RSA (s41(3)). |
| RSAA s78 - Improper Conduct in the Provision of RSAs | |
| An RSA provider, or an associate of an RSA provider, must not: | |
| (a) | supply, or offer to supply, goods or services to a person; |
| (b) | supply, or offer to supply, goods or services to a person at a particular price; or |
| (c) | give or allow, or offer to give or allow, a discount, allowance, rebate or credit in relation to the supply, or the proposed supply, of goods or services to a person; |
| on the condition that one or more of the employees of the person will hold, or has applied or agreed to hold, an RSA provided by the RSA provider. An RSA provider, or an associate of an RSA provider, also must not refuse to do (a), (b) or (c) above, for the reason that one or more of the employees of the person does not hold, or has not applied or agreed to hold, an RSA provided by the RSA provider. | |
| CR r7.9.28 - Information for RSA Holders Where Amount Reaches $10,000 | ||
| If the amount of an RSA at the end of a reporting period is at least $10,000, the periodic statement under s1017DA for that reporting period must include the following: | ||
| (a) | a statement of that fact; | |
| (b) | a statement that the information contained in the periodic statement is important and that the notice must be read carefully; | |
| (c) | a statement that outlines the effect of the lower-risk/lower-return nature of the RSA on possible benefits in the long term; | |
| (d) | a suggestion that the RSA holder may wish to consider: | |
| (i) | other superannuation arrangements that may provide a greater return over the long term; and | |
| (ii) | seeking advice on alternative investment strategies that may be more suitable. | |
| CA s761G(5) - General Insurance Products | ||
| A general insurance product or service that relates to a general insurance product is provided to a person as a retail client if: | ||
| (a) | either: | |
| (i) | the person is an individual; or | |
| (ii) | the insurance product is or would be for use in connection with a small business (see s761G(12)); and | |
| (b) | the product is motor vehicle, home building, home contents, sickness and accident, consumer credit, travel or personal and domestic property insurance or a kind of general insurance product prescribed by regulations made these purposes. | |
| Otherwise, a general insurance product or a service related to such a product that is provided to a person is not provided to them as a retail client. | ||
This basically means that the wealthy/sophisticated investor exclusion does not apply to most general insurance products.
Note that you don't need a financial services licence just to handle or settle an insurance claim on behalf of a client (CR r7.1.33).
| CA s761G(6) – Superannuation and RSA Products | ||
| (a) | An interest in a pooled superannuation trust that is provided by the trustee of that trust to a person covered by (b)(i) below is not provided to them as a retail client. | |
| (b) | A financial service related to a superannuation product or an RSA product that is provided to: | |
| (i) | the trustee of a superannuation fund, an approved deposit fund, a pooled superannuation trust or a public sector superannuation scheme (within the meaning of SISA) that has net assets of at least $10 million; or | |
| (ii) | an RSA provider (within the meaning of the RSAA), | |
| is not provided to them as a retail client. | ||
| Otherwise, a superannuation product or RSA product or a service related to such a product that is provided to a person is provided to them as a retail client. | ||
Again, this basically means that the wealthy/sophisticated investor exclusion does not apply to superannuation or RSA products.
| Licensing and Disclosure Requirements | |
| • | Persons who carry on a business of advising on, or dealing in, insurance or superannuation products need a financial services licence or to be an authorised representative of a licensee. |
| • | As most customers will be acquiring products as retail investors, advisers will generally need: |
| • Financial Services Guide; | |
| • Statement of Advice for any advice given; | |
| • Product Disclosure Statement for any products recommended; | |
| • Reasonable basis for advice; | |
| • Warnings for general or incomplete personal advice; | |
| • Dispute resolution systems; and | |
| • Compensation arrangements. | |
CA s1010B(2)(b) provides that the issue of any superannuation product is taken to occur in the course of a business of issuing financial products, ensuring that a PDS is always required for the issue of a superannuation product.
It should be noted that there are substantial modifications of, or embellishments to, these requirements in the Corporations Regulations.
By way of example, under CR r7.7.10, it is no longer necessary for an SOA to be given in relation to general insurance products other than sickness and accident insurance or consumer credit insurance.
CR r7.7.08A also permits a combined FSG and PDS to be issued as a single document for general insurance and life risk insurance products if the providing entity is a representative or a related body corporate of the product issuer. Note that CR r7.7.08A does not apply to a superannuation product to which Subdivision 4.2B of Division 4 of Part 7.9 applies (r7.7.08A(1B)). The reason is that the Government wants to ensure that the consumer is provided with a short and simple PDS for superannuation products (see below), and combining the PDS with other documents is not consistent with this objective.
By way of further example, there are modifications to the PDS and application form requirements for employer sponsored and successor funds in CR rr7.9.12, 7.9.13 and schedule 10A. CR r7.9.14 also modifies the right to return a superannuation or RSA interest that has been issued or sold in contravention of s1016E where it is subject to preservation rules or cashing restrictions.
In ASIC v PFS Business Development Group Pty Ltd [2006] VSC 192, the Supreme Court of Victoria held that companies engaged in establishing and marketing self-managed superannuation funds were carrying on a "financial services business" that required the holding of an Australian financial services licence.
Some of the problems that marketing life insurance can give rise to are highlighted in ASIC's 2005/06 investigation into insurance advice provided by GE Money. Following a review of over 150 customers files, ASIC became concerned about a number of GE Money insurance sales practices, including: (1) GE Money had a practice of advising customers to take out consumer credit insurance life cover (which would pay out the GE Money loan on their death) as well as a term life policy (which would pay a lump sum on death to the customer's estate) when it would have been cheaper for the customer to take out one term life policy to achieve the same result; (2) GE Money routinely advised customers, who were single and had no dependants, to take out life insurance to pay out the loan to GE Money when it was not clear that it was in the customer's interests to do so; (3) GE Money might have recommended that customers take out more life insurance than they needed because GE Money: (a) routinely did not take into account the level of customers' superannuation savings; (b) sometimes did not take into account life insurance cover that was part of customers' superannuation; and (c) sometimes recommended a higher level of insurance cover than the customer records suggested they needed; and (4) where an existing customer sought further credit, GE Money's practice was to provide a new loan package (incorporating the existing loan balance) and replace the existing CCI life policy with a new one. These customers were not told about the potential problems with this approach, including that if a health condition arose before the issue of the replacement policy, they might not be able to make a claim. GE Money ultimately gave enforceable undertakings to ASIC that it would: (1) stop recommending that customers take both CCI life and term life policies; (2) stop advising single customers with no dependants to take out life insurance to pay the GE Money loan unless there is a clear benefit to the customer; (3) undertake a review, both internally and by an independent compliance expert, of its sales practices; and (4) offer compensation to affected consumers. See ASIC Media Release 06-080.
| CR r7.9.11O – Modified PDS Requirements for Superannuation Products | |
| A PDS for a superannuation product to which Subdivision 4.2B of Division 4 of Part 7.9 applies must: | |
| (a) | include the information and statements mentioned in CR schedule 10D; and |
| (b) | be in the form mentioned in CR schedule 10D. |
Subdivision 4.2B of Division 4 of Part 7.9 applies to all superannuation products, other than those that consist solely of an interest in a defined benefits fund or a pension product (CR r7.9.11K). Combined accumulation/pension products and combined accumulation/defined benefits products, as well as pure risk products, are still included in the regime. However, a person is able to apply to ASIC, on a case-by-case basis or on a product-wide basis, for relevant relief from these requirements, where appropriate.
The modified PDS requirements for superannuation products in CR schedule 10D are quite prescriptive. For example, the length of a PDS (not including any matter in writing that is applied, adopted or incorporated by the PDS) for must not exceed: (a) 8 pages if it is printed on A4; (b) 16 pages if it is printed on A5; or (c) 24 pages if it is printed on DL. The minimum font size for text in the PDS is 8 points for the name, address, ABN, ACN and AFSL of the person giving the PDS and 9 points for all other text.
The PDS must include sections which must be numbered and titled as follows:
1. About [name of superannuation product]
2. How super works
3. Benefits of investing with [name of superannuation product]
4. Risks of super
5. How we invest your money
6. Fees and costs
7. How super is taxed
8. Insurance in your super
9. How to open an account.
The PDS may include additional sections after sections 1 to 9 and may include other information, provided it does not contravene the limitations on length and font size mentioned above. The regulations contain further requirements as to what can and can't be included in each section mentioned above.
The Government has published a sample PDS for a superannuation product for guidance.
| The Difference Between an Agent and a Broker | |
| Agent = an agent of the insurer whose function is to procure persons to insure with his or her principal. | |
| Broker = an independent consultant who is engaged by, and acts as the agent for, an intended insured to locate and secure suitable insurance cover. Insurance brokers are, however, unlike other agents in that: | |
| • | their commission is usually paid by the insurer and not their principal; and |
| • | they often act under "binders" from insurers, which are authorities given to them by an insurer permitting them to enter into insurance contacts on behalf of the insurer and to deal with and settle claims against and on behalf of the insurer (see s761A). |
Note that the Insurance (Agents and Brokers) Act 1974 was repealed as part of the FSR reforms, although many of the provisions in the Act were simply carried across to the Corporations Act or Corporations Regulations.
Binders and commission arrangements have a flavour of acting for both sides and raise conflict issues to which brokers need to be sensitive.
A particularly egregious example of this emerged in October 2004, when NY Attorney General Eliot Spitzer announced that he was suing the leading US insurance brokerage firm, Marsh & McLennan, alleging that it steered unsuspecting clients to insurers with whom it had lucrative payoff agreements and that the firm solicited rigged bids for insurance contracts (see http://www.oag.state.ny.us/media_center/2004/oct/oct14a_04.html and http://www.oag.state.ny.us/media_center/2004/oct/oct14a_04_attach1.pdf). The accompanying civil complaint alleged that for years Marsh received special payments from insurance companies that were above and beyond normal sales commissions. These payments, known as "contingent commissions", were characterized as compensation for "market services" but were, in fact, rewards for the business that Marsh and its independent brokers steered and allocated to the insurance companies. The complaint also alleged that Marsh occasionally solicited fake bids to deceive its customers into thinking that true competition had taken place for their insurance business. The complaint culminated in a settlement agreement under which Marsh & McLennan agreed to pay US$850 million in restitution to its policyholders, to adopt a new business model designed to avoid conflicts of interest and to issue a public statement apologising for "unlawful" and "shameful" conduct (see http://www.oag.state.ny.us/media_center/2005/jan/marshsettlement_pr.pdf).
Subsequently, ASIC conducted a review of the remuneration practices of general insurance brokers in Australia. The review did not find any evidence of the kind of systemic abuses uncovered in the US. ASIC did, however, identify some deficiencies in relation to Australian brokers' management of conflicts of interest and disclosure of remuneration. The review also highlighted the inherent conflict in the practice of paying volume bonuses or other types of contingent remuneration to brokers. In particular, ASIC found that more than half the brokers reviewed had contingent remuneration arrangements in place and most of those brokers placed a significant proportion of their business with insurers that paid extra commissions based on the volume of business placed with them. A copy of the review can be downloaded from: http://www.asic.gov.au/asic/pdflib.nsf/LookupByFileName/IBRA_report_2005.pdf/$file/IBRA_report_2005.pdf.
| CA s916E - Licensees Acting Under a Binder | ||
| (1) | Despite s916D, a financial services licensee (the authorised licensee) may be the authorised representative of another financial services licensee who is an insurer, if the authorised licensee acts under a binder given by the insurer. | |
| (2) | For all purposes connected with contracts that are risk insurance products, or with claims against the insurer, in respect of which the authorised licensee acts under the binder: | |
| (a) | the authorised licensee is taken to act on behalf of the insurer and not the insured; and | |
| (b) | if the insured in fact relied in good faith on the conduct of the authorised licensee, the authorised licensee is taken to act on behalf of the insurer regardless of the fact that the authorised licensee did not act within the scope of the binder. | |
CA s916D generally prohibits an AFSL holder from acting as an authorised representative for another licensee. S916E(1) provides an exception to that rule for a licensee acting under a binder given by an insurer.
S916E(2) makes it clear that when the broker is purporting to act under a binder, the broker is acting as agent for the insurer (reversing the common law position that a broker is the agent of the insured). This is so even if the broker actually exceeds their authority under the binder.
The FSG used by a broker which acts under a binder must identify the services provided under the binder, state that they are provided under a binder and explain the significance of the services being provided under a binder (see s942B(2)(i) and 942C(2)(j)).
| The Common Law Duties of Brokers |
| Per Kirby P in Provincial Insurance Australia Pty Ltd v Consolidated Wood Products Pty Ltd (1995) 25 NSWLR 541, at 555-6: |
| "1. The duty in law of a broker who is engaged to secure insurance on behalf of a client is … [to] exercise proper care and skill in carrying out the assured' s instructions … |
| 2. The foregoing duty does not extend to expounding the law to the insured. But it does extend to pointing out legal pitfalls which might arise in the course of effecting a valid insurance cover and in securing cover for the risk necessary to the insured's disclosed or ascertained needs ... |
| 5. It is especially important that an insurance broker should go through with the insured the list of exceptions in the policy secured. This should be done in order to afford the insured, who may fall within an exception, the opportunity to request deletion of the exception upon payment of a higher premium or cover with another insurer." |
| CR r7.8.01(4) – Insurance Money may be Paid into Trust Account | |
| Money paid to a financial services licensee from or on behalf of: | |
| • | an insured or intending insured for or on account of an insurer in connection with a contract of insurance or proposed contract of insurance; or |
| • | an insurer for or on account of an insured or intending insured, |
| is money which may be paid into [a client trust] account to which s981B applies. | |
| CR r7.8.02(6) – Minimum Trust Account Balance Requirements for Insurance Products | |
| In relation to moneys received in relation to insurance products, the financial services licensee must ensure that: | |
| (a) | the balance of moneys in an account maintained by the financial services licensee under s981B; and |
| (b) | the total amount previously withdrawn from the account and currently invested under r7.8.02(2); |
| is at least the sum of: | |
| (c) | any amounts that an insurer is entitled to receive from the account; and |
| (d) | any amounts that an insured or intending insured is entitled to receive from the account. |
The effect of this regulation is to require the licensee to make good any shortfall in its trust account. The insurer and insured are still entitled to amounts even if they have been withdrawn from the trust account and invested (r7.8.02(6A) and (6B)). ASIC has power to waive this minimum balance requirement (r7.8.02(6C)).
| CA s985B - Status of Amounts Paid in Respect of Contracts of Insurance | ||
| (1) | If: | |
| (a) | a contract of insurance is arranged or effected by a financial services licensee; and | |
| (b) | the licensee is not the insurer; | |
| payment to the licensee of money payable (whether in respect of a premium or otherwise) by the insured under or in relation to the contract is a discharge, as between the insured and the insurer, of the liability of the insured to the insurer in respect of that money. | ||
| (2) | Payment to a financial services licensee by or on behalf of an intending insured of money (whether in respect of a premium or otherwise) in respect of a contract of insurance to be arranged or effected by the licensee with an insurer (not being the licensee) is a discharge, as between the insured and the insurer, of any liability of the insured under or in respect of the contract, to the extent of the amount of the payment. | |
| (3) | Payment by an insurer to a financial services licensee of money payable to an insured, whether in respect of a claim, return of premiums or otherwise, under or in relation to a contract of insurance, does not discharge any liability of the insurer to the insured in respect of that money. | |
| (4) | An agreement, so far as it purports to alter or restrict the operation of s985B(1), (2) or (3), is void. | |
| (5) | S985B(4) does not make void an agreement between a financial services licensee and an insured in so far as the agreement allows the licensee to set off against money payable to the insured money payable by the insured to the licensee in respect of premiums. | |
This repeats provisions that used to be found in s14 of the Insurance (Agents and Brokers) Act and reverses the position that would otherwise apply at common law because the broker acts as agent for the insured and not the insurer. The common law position was that payment of an insurance premium by the insured to the broker did not discharge the liability of the insured to the insurer for the premium so that if the broker became insolvent without accounting for the money to the insurer, the insurer could still recover the premium from the insured (Con-Stan Industries (Aust) Pty Ltd v Norwich Winterthur Insurance (Aust) Ltd (1986) 160 CLR 226). Now payment to the broker is a good discharge to the insured.
Note that this section applies whether or not there is a binder in place between the insurer and the licensee.
| CR r7.8.05 – Money Held on Trust for Insurer Once Risk Accepted | |
| If, in relation to an insurance product: | |
| (a) | a financial services licensee is holding client money; and |
| (b) | the risk in relation to the insurance product has been accepted by an insurer, |
| the financial services licensee holds the money on trust for the insurer in accordance with Division 2 of Part 7.8 of the Act, subject to the agreement of the insurer. However, to the extent the money is held in a s981B account, the financial services licensee is entitled to the interest on the account and that interest need not be paid into the account. | |
| CR r7.8.08(1) and (2) – Payment of Premiums to Insurers | |
| Where: | |
| (a) | money is received by a financial services licensee: (i) from or on behalf of an insured or intending insured, or from another financial services licensee on behalf of an insured or intending insured; and (ii) as a premium or an instalment of a premium in connection with a contract of insurance or a proposed contract of insurance; |
| (b) | the risk, or a part of the risk, to which the contract or proposed contract relates is accepted by or on behalf of an insurer; and |
| (c) | the financial services licensee who so received the money is informed of, or otherwise ascertains, the amount of the premium or instalment to be paid, |
| the money must be paid to the insurer: | |
| (d) | within 90 days after: (i) the day on which the cover provided by the insurer under the contract starts to have effect; or (ii) the first day of the period to which the instalment relates; or |
| (e) | if it is not practicable for the financial services licensee to pay the amount in that period - as soon as practicable after the end of that period. |
|
CR rr7.8.05 and 7.8.08 are based on s27 of the Insurance (Agents and Brokers) Act. Together, they recognise a practice in the insurance broking industry where brokers retain premiums paid by clients for some time before paying them over to the insurer and keep the interest they earn on the retained funds. CR7.8.08 fixes the maximum period that this can occur generally as 90 days from when risk coverage starts. |
|
|
CR r7.8.08(3) provides that if the licensee has not received the amount of the premium, or of an instalment of the premium, payable in respect of a contract of insurance at the end of the period referred to in (d) above, the licensee must notify the insurer in writing, not later than 7 days after the end of that period, that the licensee has not received the amount. There are provisions in CR rr7.8.08(5)-(9) to deal with the situation where the licensee has not been informed of, and has not otherwise ascertained, the amount of the premium or instalment to be paid. |
|
|
CR r7.8.08(10) provides that nothing in CR7.8.08 prevents: |
|
|
> |
an insurer from making a contract or arrangement for the licensee to pay an amount to the insurer before the 90 day period has expired; |
|
> |
an insurer from authorising a licensee in writing to pay on behalf of the insurer from out of the money received by the licensee any charges required by law to be paid by the insurer in respect of the contract of insurance (eg stamp duty); or |
|
> |
a licensee from exercising any legal right to deduct from any moneys payable by the licensee to the insurer any remuneration payable by the insurer to the licensee in relation to a contract of insurance. |
| CR r7.8.08(13)-(15) – Refund of Premiums to Clients | |
| If: | |
| (i) | a financial services licensee receives money from, or on behalf of, an insured or intending insured in connection with a contract of insurance or proposed contract of insurance; and |
| (ii) | at the end of 30 days after the day on which the money was received, the risk, or a part of the risk, to which the contract or proposed contract relates has not been accepted, |
| the financial services licensee must, within 7 days after the end of the 30 day period: | |
| (a) | give notice in the approved form to the insured or intending insured of the extent to which the risk has not been accepted; and |
| (b) | return that part of the money that relates to the part of the risk that has not been accepted to the insured or intending insured. |
| CR r7.8.08(16) – Payment of Other Amounts to Clients | |
| If a financial services licensee receives money from, or on behalf of, an insurer for payment to, or on behalf of, an insured, the financial services licensee must pay an amount equal to the money to, or on behalf of, the insured: | |
| (a) | within 7 days after the day on which the financial services licensee received the money; or |
| (b) | if it is not practicable for the financial services licensee to pay the amount in that period - as soon as practicable after the end of the period. |
|
CR r7.8.08(17) provides that nothing in r7.8.08(16) prevents: |
|
|
> |
an insured from making a contract or arrangement with a insurance financial services licensee providing for the financial services licensee to pay an amount mentioned in that subregulation to or on behalf of the insured before the time by which the financial services licensee is required by that subregulation to pay that amount to or on behalf of the insured; or |
|
> |
a financial services licensee from exercising any legal right available to the financial services licensee to deduct from an amount payable by the financial services licensee to the insured any money payable by the insured to the financial services licensee in connection with a contract of insurance. |
| General Insurance Code of Practice | |
| • | General Insurance Code of Practice - intended to promote better, more informed relations between insurers and their customers; to improve consumer confidence in the general insurance industry; to provide better mechanisms for the resolution of complaints and disputes between insurers and their customers; and to commit insurers and the professionals they rely upon to higher standards of customer service. |
| • | General Insurance Brokers' Code of Practice - intended to promote informed and effective relationships between insureds, insurers and insurance brokers. |
The General Insurance Code covers all general insurance products except workers compensation, marine insurance, medical indemnity insurance, and compulsory third party insurance including where there is linked driver protection cover. It does not cover reinsurance. It does not apply to life and health insurance products issued by: a) life insurers; or b) registered health insurers.
| Superannuation (Resolution of Complaints) Act 1993 s11 - Tribunal Objectives | |
| The SCT must, in carrying out its functions or exercising its powers under this Act, pursue the objectives of providing mechanisms for: | |
| (a) | the conciliation of complaints; |
| (b) | if a complaint cannot be resolved by conciliation - the review of the decision or conduct to which the complaint relates; |
| that are fair, economical, informal and quick. | |
Click here for a copy of the Superannuation (Resolution of Complaints) Act 1993.
The Superannuation (Resolution of Complaints) Act establishes the Superannuation Complaints Tribunal. It is funded by a levy on trustees of regulated superannuation funds.
| Jurisdiction of SCT | |
| The SCT has jurisdiction to deal with complaints about: | |
| • | decisions of trustees of regulated super funds or ASFs (s14); |
| • | decisions of trustees to admit persons to life policy funds (s14A); |
| • | conduct of insurers concerning the sale of annuity policies (s15A); |
| • | decisions of insurers under annuity policies (s15B); |
| • | statements given to the Commissioner of Taxation by superannuation providers (s15CA); |
| • | conduct of RSA providers concerning the opening of RSAs (s15E); |
| • | decisions of RSA providers (s15F); |
| • | conduct of insurers concerning the sale of insurance benefits where the premiums are paid from an RSA (s15H); and |
| • | decisions of insurers under contract of insurance where the premiums are paid from an RSA (s15J). |
| Other Matters Concerning the SCT | |
| • | SCT may not deal with a complaint unless the complainant has first attempted to have the matter resolved directly with the trustee, insurer or RSA provider (s19). |
| • | SCT may not deal with a complaint if the subject matter of complaint is the subject of court proceedings (s20). |
| • | SCT first attempts to conciliate the complaint and, if that fails, conducts a formal hearing. |
| • | A party is not entitled to be legally represented unless they are under a disability or the SCT otherwise consents (s23). |
Copyright © 2002-2010 Inhouse Legal Solutions Pty Limited ABN 16 003 663 456.